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Valid PRMIA 8011 Exam Pdf | Dumps 8011 Questions
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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q233-Q238):
NEW QUESTION # 233
A risk analyst attempting to model the tail of a loss distribution using EVT divides the available dataset into blocks of data, and picks the maximum of each block as a data point to consider.
Which approach is the risk analyst using?
- A. Peak-over-thresholds approach
- B. Block Maxima approach
- C. Fourier transformation
- D. Expected loss approach
Answer: B
Explanation:
The risk analyst is using the block maxima approach. The data points that result will then be used to fit a GEV distribution.
Expected shortfall refers to the expected losses beyond a specified threshold. The peaks-over-threshold approach is an alternative approach to the block maxima approach, and involves considering exceedances above a threshold. Fourier transformation is not relevant in this context, and is a non-sensical option.
NEW QUESTION # 234
Which of the following are attributes of a robust stress testing programme at a bank?
- A. Data of appropriate quality and granularity
- B. Robust systems infrastructure
- C. All of the above
- D. Written policies and procedures
Answer: C
Explanation:
A bank's stress testing programme in relation to firm wide stress tests should document the type, frequency and the purpose of the programme, as well as methodologies for defining scenarios and the remedial actions envisaged. Choice 'b' is therefore a necessary attribute of a robust stress testing programme.
The programme should be supported by a robust systems infrastructure that allows the execution of periodic as well as ad-hoc stress tests at the right level (business unit, as well as firm-wide) at the right level of detail or granularity. Choice 'c' also therefore is a valid choice.
A related element is data quality - without which no stress tests can be be credible.
Therefore all the choices listed are correct and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following statements are true:
I. Shocks to risk factors should be relative rather than absolute if we wish to avoid a change in thesign of the risk factor.
II. Interest rate shocks are generally modeled as absolute shocks.
III. Shocks to volatility are generally modeled as absolute shocks.
IV. Shocks to market spreads are generally modeled as relative shocks.
- A. II only
- B. I, II and III
- C. I and II
- D. II and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
Suppose during a historical event interest rates rose from 2% to 2.25%. This can be understood as a change of either 25 basis points, or a change of 12.5%. When applied to the current portfolio when interest rates are
0.50%, we may model this 'shock' as either a rise to 0.75%, or 0.5625% (ie a rise of 12.5% over existing levels). The former is called an absolute shock, and the latter a relative shock.
I is true as relative shocks can never change the sign of a risk factor. Yet interest rate changes are modeled as absolute changes as relative shocks can get artificially amplified or attenuated if the current level of interest rates is too different from those that existed during the crisis being modeled. Therefore II is true. III and IV are false as volatility is modeled as a relative shock and spreads are modeled as absolute shocks.
NEW QUESTION # 236
The risk that a counterparty fails to deliver its obligation upon settlement while having received the leg owed to it is called:
- A. Credit risk
- B. Replacement risk
- C. Settlement risk
- D. Pre-settlement risk
Answer: C
Explanation:
Choice 'd' is the correct answer. Settlement risk, as the name suggests, arises upon settlement when one of the parties delivers its obligation under the transaction and the other does not. Consider a EUR/USD FX forward contract maturing in a month. At maturity, one of the parties will deliver EURs and the other USDs. If one party fails to deliver, then it constitutes a very large risk to the other party. This risk is much larger than pre- settlement risk, because the amount at risk is the entire notional and not just the replacement value. Of course, settlement risk exists for a very short period of time, no more than a number or hours or a day.
There is no such thing as 'replacement risk', and credit risk is a larger category of which settlement risks is one component. Settlement risk is the most appropriate answer.
NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following are measures of liquidity risk
I. Liquidity Coverage Ratio
II. Net Stable Funding Ratio
III. Book Value to Share Price
IV. Earnings Per Share
- A. II and III
- B. I and IV
- C. I and II
- D. III and IV
Answer: C
Explanation:
In December 2009 the BIS came out with a new consultative document on liquidity risk. Given the events of
2007 - 2009, it has been clear that a key characteristic of the financial crisis was the inaccurate and ineffective management of liquidity risk The paper two separate but complementary objectives in respect of liquidity risk management: The first objective relates to the short-term liquidity risk profile of institution, and the second objective is to promote resiliency over longer-term time horizons. The paper identifies the following two ratios - you should be aware of these - though I am not sure if these will show up in the PRMIA exam:
1. Liquidity Coverage Ratio addresses the ability of an institution to survive an acute liquidity risk stress scenario lasting one month. It is calculated as follows:
Liquidity Coverage Ratio = Stock of high quality liquid assets/Net cash outflows over a 30-day time period
2. Net Stable Funding Ratio has been developed to capture structural issues related to funding choices.
Net Stable Funding Ratio = Available amount of stable funding/Required amount of stable funding Both ratios should be equal to or greater than 1. The statement contains detailed definitions of what is included or excluded from each of the terms used in the calculations for each of the ratios. In addition, the standard also describes the what the 'acute' scenario should include (things such as a 3 notch credit downgrade, reduction in retail deposits etc) Therefore Choice 'b' is the correct answer. Book Value to Share Price and Earnings Per Share are accounting measures unrelated to liquidity.
NEW QUESTION # 238
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